Talk:Law of Truly Large Numbers

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For the layperson, the statement:

"A given event might be 0.1% likely to happen in one occurrence. However, for this never to happen in, say, a sample of 1000, would require a probability of 0.999 to the power of 1000. This in fact comes out as a chance of 36.8%. "

requires a huge leap of faith. 36.8% just doesn't make intuitive sense, coming from 0.1 and 1000... and where does the 0.999 come into it?

Could this be explained? Either by reference or by including the necessary calculation?

I am aware that the calculation resulting in the 36.8% is clearly there, and I know where the mysterious 0.999 came from - just not sure that anyone with no mathematical background would. And, since I imagine that this article is aimed at the non-mathematical, I feel that additional explanation would be beneficial. Haruth (talk) 01:37, 22 March 2008 (UTC)