Talk:George Villiers, 1st Duke of Buckingham
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This article, as currently written (3/2/06), is quite, quite bizarre. It commences by stating that as a youth Buckingham was noted for his beauty, was introduced to King James, and then proceeds to catalogue Buckingham's astonishing rise to fame and fortune as if it all happened for no reason, apart from him being perhaps a pretty presence at Court. Someone could read this and go away without the slightest idea that Buckingham's fame and fortune rested on one shining fact: a king fell head over heels in love with him. Otherwise he would have remained a forgotten commoner. -- KitKat.
I agree completely, and a reference to a love between them is made elsewhere in wikipedia - the article Disciple whom Jesus loved contains the following:
"Meaning of the phrase
While many readers of John interpret the phrase 'disciple whom Jesus loved' to mean that he was particularly close to one of his disciples, others find evidence in the phrase of a romantic relationship. For example, King James I of England justified his relationship with the Duke of Buckingham by saying Jesus had his John and I have my George. However, the Greek word for love used in the Gospel is not erotic, and no early Christian commentators made this claim."
If the quote from James in that article is verifiable, it certainly seems relevent both to this article and to that on James! -- Saluton
I concur with the above statements and would add, for the sake of accuracy, that Charles was not the Duke of York when they went to Spain. He became the Prince of Wales in 1616, a few years after his brother Henry's death. ---Paddy
[edit] Pronouncing the surname
The surname has been changed from pronounced /ˈvɪljɚz/ to pronounced /ˈvɪlɚz/ ("villers"). This seems to be well within the poster's field of expertise so, rather than disfigure the lead with a {{fact}} request, may I ask here for the source? --Old Moonraker (talk) 09:30, 25 April 2008 (UTC)
