Talk:Charles's law

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Contents 1 Charles' or Charles's 2 Illustration requests 3 How did Charles express temperature? 4 Question with wording 5 anticipated by Dalton?

[edit] Charles' or Charles's

I think the name of this article should be changed to "Charles' Law". I'm pretty sure "Charles's Law" Is improper english. --Snafuu 15:54, 18 May 2005 (UTC)

Actually, it isn't. "Charles" is a proper noun and is singular. The apostrophe after the "s" is only correct when a noun is both plural and possessive and ends in an "s". So, "the dogs' toys were disgusting" refers to toys owned by more than one dog. "The women's rights movement" refers to the movement which belongs to a number of women, and "Jacques's teddy bear" refers to the teddy bear that belongs to one person, Jacques. Lepidoptera 20:02, 26 July 2005 (UTC)

Actually, "Charles's law" is improper English. According to my previous learnings, one should place the apostrophe only with an "s" proceeding if the word is pronounced in posessive with the "s." For example, Jacques is pronounced with with an apostrophe "s" at the end as merely "Jacques," and not "Jacqueses," as that is an uncomfortable pronunciation, and therefore it is only necessary to include an apostrophe. A word pronouneced as "es" after the ending "s," does include the "'s" at the end, such as "Sampras's" (Samprases). 68.221.87.219 7:51 24 October 2005 (GMT)

Actually, traditionally, "Charles's" is correct. Increasingly, however, "Charles'" is also becoming acceptable. You can find English style guides that say that only "Charles's" is correct, as well as style guides which say that either "Charles's" or "Charles'" is acceptable. —Lowellian (reply) 18:45, 24 December 2005 (UTC)

Actually, it can be used either way, depending on the type of mood you want the word to set. If you want a smooth rhythm then, by all means, use "Charles'." If you want to empthasize that it belongs to Charles then you can use "Charles's." Either way, it just depends on how you want people to view your work. (the_cutout). --the_cutout 13:04, 26 February 2006 (PMT)

Actually, the only appropriate rule here is that each reply has to begin with actually. As for the apostrophe rules, it seems to me like they are in constant flux. --64.24.154.46 03:05, 8 January 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Illustration requests

• A graph to illustrate the mathematical relationship.
• An illustration to show the relationship using idealized hard spheres.

-- Beland 07:02, 7 April 2007 (UTC)

[edit] How did Charles express temperature?

I have a question.

The Charles's Law (V/T=k) is only true if the temperature is expressed in kelvin. If it is in Celsius or Fahrenheit, the equation does not hold.

The page says Charles did his work around 1787 and Joseph Louis Gay-Lussac proposed the law in 1802. But kelvin was not proposed until around 1850.

I can envision Charles or Gay-Lussac heated or cooled gases and observed their expansion or contraction. But how could they propose that V/T is a constant if the kelvin scale did not exist?Ctchou 14:27, 15 April 2007 (UTC)

He expressed it initially in Celsius, but after the derivation of the Kelvin for thermodynamic properties, it was adopted. ♥♥ ΜÏΠЄSΓRΘΠ€ ♥♥ ^{slurp me!} 14:40, 15 April 2007 (UTC)

[edit] Question with wording

The second paragraph states, "In other more thermodynamics-based definitions, the relationship between the fixed mass of a gas at constant pressure is inversely proportional to the temperature applied to the system, which can be further used by stipulating a system where α represents cubic expansivity of a gas, with θ representing the temperature measured of the system in Kelvins:"

I'm confused with the bolded part of the paragraph, "fixed mass of a gas at constant pressure is inversely proportional to the temperature." ? So if fixed mass of a gas at constant pressure is inversely proportional to temperature, then as temperature increases, fixed mass decreases? Is this an error? How could fix mass increase/decrease?

[edit] anticipated by Dalton?

I have a brief biography of Dalton which claims that Dalton anticipated Gay-Lussac and Charles in 1801. Can anyone else confirm this? LonelyBeacon (talk) 04:36, 5 May 2008 (UTC) MrZhuKeeper (talk) 19:02, 19 November 2007 (UTC)